If the Second Coming and associated end time events are in our future, and not the near future of the first-century Church…
- Why did John the Baptist and Jesus say that the kingdom of heaven was “at hand” (Matthew 3:2; Matthew 4:17), and Jesus said that some of the people standing in front of Him would not taste death until they saw the kingdom of God present with power (Mark 9:1; Luke 9:27), when the establishment of Jesus’ kingdom occurs in the midst of the events of Revelation (Revelation 11:15)?
- Why did Jesus say that not one jot nor tittle of the Old Covenant Law would pass away until heaven and earth pass away (Matthew 5:18)? Significant sections of the Law became impossible to observe after the destruction of the Second Temple in 70 AD. How could those jots and tittles continue to apply, unless heaven and earth did indeed pass away at that time?
- Why did Jesus say that his disciples would not finish going through all the cities of Israel before the Son of Man comes (Matthew 10:23)? This mission was cut short by the First Jewish-Roman War that devastated Israel. Has this mission continued for 2000 years nonetheless?
- Why did Jesus say that some of the people standing in front of Him would not taste death until they would see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom (Matthew 16:28)?
- Why, in the Gospel of Matthew, when asked about the destruction of the temple and the sign of His coming and the end of the age, did Jesus describe the end-time events and His Second Coming, and then say that “this generation will by no means pass away till all these things take place” (Matthew 24:1-34; cp. Mark 13:30, Luke 21:32)? A generation in the Bible is 40 years (confirmed in Hebrews 3:9-10), and there were exactly 40 years between Jesus’ first cleansing of the temple and the siege of Jerusalem that resulted in the destruction of the temple. What better interpretation of “generation” is available that accords with both biblical use and the events of recorded history?
- Why, in the Gospels of Mark and Luke, did Jesus describe the end time events in response to a question solely about the destruction of the temple (Mark 13:1-4; Luke 21:5-7)?
- Why did Jesus instruct his listeners to “watch” (Matthew 24:42; Matthew 25:13; Mark 13:33; Luke 21:36), if they were not to experience the coming of the Son of Man?
- Why did Peter, when told by Jesus to be ready for the coming of the Son of Man, interpret Jesus’ intended audience as including Peter himself (Luke 12:40-41)?
- Why did Jesus tell the high priest that he would see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven (Matthew 26:64; Mark 14:62)?
- Why did Jesus say that “now” (meaning, in His very near future) the ruler of this world (i.e., Satan) would be cast out, when after the same event is described in Revelation 12:9, the devil is described as having a “short time” (Revelation 12:12)? Similarly, why did Paul say that God would crush Satan under the feet of Christians “shortly” (Romans 16:20)?
- Why did the apostles believe that John could survive until the Second Coming (John 21:23), based on Jesus’ comment in John 21:22? Did they expect John to roam the earth for 2000 years, never aging and never revealing his true identity after the first century?
- Why did Peter explicitly tie the speaking in tongues on Pentecost to the fulfillment of Joel’s prophecy about the Last Days (Acts 2:16-17)? Is this not a straightforward statement that Peter was living in the Last Days?
- Why did Paul say that it was “high time to awake out of sleep, for now our salvation is nearer than when we first believed” (Romans 13:11)?
- Why did Paul say that “the night is far spent; the day is at hand” (Romans 13:12)?
- Why did Paul say that the Corinthians were eagerly waiting for the revelation of Jesus Christ (1 Corinthians 1:7)?
- Why did Paul say that the “time is short… for the form of this world is passing away” (1 Corinthians 7:29, 31)?
- How can some preach the cessation of tongues and prophecies in the first century, when the cessation of these things, according to Paul, happens “when that which is perfect has come” (1 Corinthians 13:8-10)? Does this not mean that either there are divine prophecies of such specificity as the binding of Paul in Jerusalem (Acts 21:11) and the coming of a worldwide famine (Acts 11:28) today, as well as tongues that can be interpreted by other Christians (1 Corinthians 12:10), or else the perfect has come already?
- Why did Paul say that the Lord was at hand (Philippians 4:5)?
- Why did Paul commend the Thessalonians for turning from idols to wait for the Son to deliver them from the wrath to come (1 Thessalonians 1:10)?
- Why did Paul say that the Day of the Lord would have overtaken the Thessalonians if they had remained in darkness (1 Thessalonians 5:4) and that the Thessalonians were to watch and be sober (1 Thessalonians 5:6)?
- Why did Paul say that God would give the Thessalonians rest when Jesus was revealed from heaven (2 Thessalonians 1:7)?
- Why did Paul warn the Thessalonians not to prematurely expect the coming of the Lord before certain signs were fulfilled (2 Thessalonians 2:1-2)? Does this not mean Paul was priming them for the expectancy of His coming during their lifetimes? Would he have not otherwise told them not to expect His coming at all before their deaths?
- Why did Paul say, regarding the revelation of the man of sin that would directly precede the Lord’s coming (2 Thessalonians 2:3; 8), that the mystery of lawlessness was already at work and that someone was at that time actively restraining the lawless one but would be taken out of the way (2 Thessalonians 2:6-7)?
- Why did Paul urge Timothy to fight the good fight of the faith until the appearing of Jesus Christ (1 Timothy 6:12-14)?
- Why did Paul command Timothy to “turn away” from the people who would come during the Last Days (2 Timothy 3:1-5)? Why did he contrast Timothy’s continuance in the faith with the proliferation of evil men and impostors (2 Timothy 3:13-14)? Why did he connect Timothy’s ministry with the coming of those who would not endure sound doctrine (2 Timothy 4:2-5)? Does this not indicate that Timothy was living in (or about to live in) the Last Days?
- Why did Paul say that in “these” Last Days, God had spoken to them by His Son (Hebrews 1:1-2)? If Paul was not living in the Last Days, is there more revelation from the Son to come in our future?
- Why did Paul give the Hebrews instructions to perform “as you see the Day approaching” (Hebrews 10:25)?
- Why did Paul say that in a “little while” He “who is coming will come and will not tarry” (Hebrews 10:37)?
- Why did James accuse the rich members of his audience of heaping up treasures in the Last Days (James 5:3)? Does this not mean that he was living in the Last Days?
- Why did James exhort his listeners to be patient until the coming of the Lord (James 5:7)?
- Why did James say that the coming of the Lord was at hand (James 5:8)?
- Why did James say that the Judge was standing at the door (James 5:9)?
- Why did Peter refer to the time his listeners were living in as the “last times” (1 Peter 1:20)?
- Why did Peter say that the end of all things was at hand (1 Peter 4:7)?
- Why did Peter refer to the dawning of the day and the morning star rising in the hearts of his listeners (2 Peter 1:19)? What could he be referring to except the Second Coming?
- Why did Peter urge his listeners to look for and even hasten the Day of the Lord (2 Peter 3:11-12)?
- Why did John say that it was the Last Hour, as evidenced by the fact that antichrists had already come (1 John 2:18)?
- Why did Jude refer to the men who had crept into the Church (Jude 1:4) as the mockers of the last time (Jude 1:18)?
- Why do Revelation 1:1 and 22:6 refer to the events of the Book of Revelation as “things which must shortly take place”?
- Why does Revelation 1:3 say that “the time is near”?
- Why does Revelation 22:10 say that “the time is at hand”?
- Why does John say that those who pierced (i.e., crucified) Jesus would see Him coming on the clouds (Revelation 1:7)?
- Why did Jesus tell the church of Thyatira to “hold fast what you have till I come” (Revelation 2:25)?
- Why does Jesus say repeatedly in Revelation that He is coming quickly (Revelation 3:11; 22:7; 22:12; 22:20)?
- Why is there not a single reference to the Second Coming or the associated end times events as being in the distant future of the listeners or readers anywhere in the New Testament, with the only possible exception being the millennium of Revelation 20?
- Why does every other reference to the Second Coming or the associated end times events that does not include an explicit time frame reference either make as much or more sense when considered as being fulfilled shortly instead of fulfilled in our future?
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